bcrt2000
Registered User
- Feb 17, 2005
- 3,499
- 3
Fish on The Sand said:your claim is useless though since a forward lottery is done entirely different than how you explained. This isn't about mathmatical proofs, this is abouts odds and percentages. Shows what you know about lotteries. Take it from somebody who gambles, odds are everything. You apparently know nothing about odds.
You still didn't disprove my proof.
A forward lottery is done by picking 48 balls. A reverse lottery is done by picking 48 balls. The probability for any outcome is 1/48!. So the probability of getting outcome any 48 ball outcome A is 1/48!. Let A' be the reverse of A. The probability of getting the outcome A' in the reverse lottery is 1/48!. Okay, This shows that for ANY 48 ball outcome, its reverse is as equally likely to happen.
The second part of my proof showed that if you have ANY outcome A for a forward lottery, and you count only the FIRST ball for each team it will give you the same Draft Order as taking A' and counting only the LAST ball for each team. The <== direction of this is trivial.
Any argument that the a team has more odds given a certain situation of balls WILL NOT disprove this. The only way you can disprove me is by contradicting:
- the fact that in any outcome of successive picking of X balls, where you remove each ball after it has been picked is as equally as likely to happen as the reverse of this outcome
- counting the FIRST ball in outcome A is equivalent to counting only the LAST ball in its reverse outcome, A'
I'm obviously the fool here for continuing to argue pointlessly
Last edited: