Let me say at first that this will be the last I post on this topic since it is a semantic argument and I feel as though I am just introducing a bunch of white noise to the thread.
Except you original post said he WILL be as successful not possibly or likely
It sure seems that one would have to make a very perverse reading of what I have said in order to assume that I imply one to one absolute correlation.
Such a method of argument is not constructive, even in more strict arenas of discourse (ie: legal writ). The Clinton impeachment is a good pop-culture example of this. It was determined that no reasonable person should assume that the phrase "I did not have sexual relations with that woman, Miss Lewinsky" meant "sexual relations" in a definition that excluded oral sex. So while Clinton did not necessarily explicitly lie, he was at the very least perverting the common interpretation of his own words, which is a form of perjury. What you are doing is similar.
Just in looking at the section of my post says: "history says that Olli will be able too" there are two clues that I do not imply absolute certainty. One is that the word "will" refers to what history says. Because history is past and thus certain, the use of the word "will", which suggests certainty, is merited even when what history wills is not necessarily certain. Take this recent article as an example:
Why history says Notre Dame will rise again here, the phrase "history says the Notre Dame will rise again" is used to specify a positive likelihood in a strong, argumentative sense, rather than in absolute certainty. The juxtaposition of the certain past (history) and the uncertain future (will) should be one clue as to why the reader might guess that the author implies only a strong likelihood, not a certainty that this cathedral will be rebuilt. The next clue is that the words "be able" are used. Think of how the meaning of the phrase "history says the Notre Dame will be able to rise again" differs from the original. We have introduced a human element, and thus uncertainty into the mix. Perhaps the Parisian diocese, being french, will forego its abilities to rebuild in favour of sitting around drinking cafe au lait and smoking Du Mauriers.
I should certainly not be remiss to state that Juolevi will be able to succeed, he has the ability, but desire may be more in question.
I'm guessing there's a word somewhere in there that doesn't represent your thinking. I didn't go back over your earlier posts but am merely commenting on the wording of this one.
Saying that because "a player" scored some number of points in junior and was successful in the NHL means that another player with those points in junior is likely to be successful at a higher level because another player with the same junior scoring is likely to be successful in the NHL is arguing in favour of making conclusions based on a sample size of 1. I'd be very surprised if that's what you intended to argue.
To take that to the absurd, it could then be argued that a player who scored over 100 points in major junior in two consecutive seasons is unlikely to achieve success in the NHL because Brandon Kozun didn't.
Thank-you, I see what you mean. I can guess what the disconnect is.
"because
a player put up 100 points in junior and is successful at the nhl level another player putting up those same points in junior will likely be successful as well"
There likely is a disconnect between what his "a" means (one single player?), and what my "a" means (a generalized player). I could have been more specific and said "a given player" but I didn't want to alter the original quote too much.
As an example, take the phrase "A dog is a good companion". Here it should be obvious that the meaning is not that one specific dog is a good friend, but that in general, a given dog is a good companion.
In such light, it should make sense that "a player" could very well be replaced by "a given player" as though that single player is representative of a larger pool of equivalent players.