KevinRedkey
12/18/23 and beyond!
- Jan 22, 2010
- 9,838
- 4,758
I KNOW IT'S LONG BUT IT'S EFFED UP
There are two ways of doing this:
1: Remaining Salary divided by years
example: Player is owed 15 million over 2 years. Cap hit of 7.5 million. They retain 2.5 million per year (5 total) and the CAP hit is now 5 million.
2: CAP HIT minus whatever the team retains = NEW CAP hit
example: 5 million CAP hit - 2 million retained = 3 million CAP HIT
Complications:
Alex on Anaheim:
5 Year Contract - 30 million dollars - CAP HIT of 6 million
Year 1: 5 million (completed)
Year 2: 5 million (completed)
Year 3: 6 million (completed)
Year 4: 7 million
Year 5: 7 million
In this example, Alex has just finished his 3rd year, and would be going in to his 4th. He's been paid 16 million of his 30 million, leaving 14 million to go. Lets say you want to make the CAP HIT 4 million for the team he is being trade to. This is the confusing part...
Example one:
4 million per year for 2 years = 8 million is salary
Total contract of 30 million - 8 million = 22 million
Anaheim has already paid him 16, so they pay another 6 (3 per year) to make it 22
CAP HIT is now 4 million for the other team
Example two:
Cap hit is 6, so Anaheim retains 2 per year (4 total) to make the CAP hit 4 million
Why both examples one makes no sense:
Corey plays for Carolina
10 years - 100 million dollars - CAP hit of 10million dollars
Year 1: 11 million (completed)
Year 2: 11 Million (completed)
Year 3, 4 ,5.. to 9: 11 million (completed)
Year 10: ONE million
Corey has completed 9 years and would be going in to his 10th. He's been paid 99 million of his 100 million, leaving only 1 million to go.
If he was traded normally, with no retention, his cap hit would be 10 million dollars (obviously).
Using example one (Remaining Salary divided by years):
1 year at 1 million - 0.500 (retention) = 0.500 CAP HIT
That makes no sense, right? So it must be example 2...
Using example 2 (CAP HIT minus whatever the team retains = NEW CAP hit):
10.0 CAP hit - 0.500 retention = 9.500 CAP Hit
So it must be example 2... but...
Alex on Aneheim:
6 million CAP hit and 7 million per year left in salary.
If they were to retain 6.5 million per year, that woul make his CAP hit NEGATIVE 0.500... that cant be right either.
How does one calculate this stuff?!! lol
There are two ways of doing this:
1: Remaining Salary divided by years
example: Player is owed 15 million over 2 years. Cap hit of 7.5 million. They retain 2.5 million per year (5 total) and the CAP hit is now 5 million.
2: CAP HIT minus whatever the team retains = NEW CAP hit
example: 5 million CAP hit - 2 million retained = 3 million CAP HIT
Complications:
Alex on Anaheim:
5 Year Contract - 30 million dollars - CAP HIT of 6 million
Year 1: 5 million (completed)
Year 2: 5 million (completed)
Year 3: 6 million (completed)
Year 4: 7 million
Year 5: 7 million
In this example, Alex has just finished his 3rd year, and would be going in to his 4th. He's been paid 16 million of his 30 million, leaving 14 million to go. Lets say you want to make the CAP HIT 4 million for the team he is being trade to. This is the confusing part...
Example one:
4 million per year for 2 years = 8 million is salary
Total contract of 30 million - 8 million = 22 million
Anaheim has already paid him 16, so they pay another 6 (3 per year) to make it 22
CAP HIT is now 4 million for the other team
Example two:
Cap hit is 6, so Anaheim retains 2 per year (4 total) to make the CAP hit 4 million
Why both examples one makes no sense:
Corey plays for Carolina
10 years - 100 million dollars - CAP hit of 10million dollars
Year 1: 11 million (completed)
Year 2: 11 Million (completed)
Year 3, 4 ,5.. to 9: 11 million (completed)
Year 10: ONE million
Corey has completed 9 years and would be going in to his 10th. He's been paid 99 million of his 100 million, leaving only 1 million to go.
If he was traded normally, with no retention, his cap hit would be 10 million dollars (obviously).
Using example one (Remaining Salary divided by years):
1 year at 1 million - 0.500 (retention) = 0.500 CAP HIT
That makes no sense, right? So it must be example 2...
Using example 2 (CAP HIT minus whatever the team retains = NEW CAP hit):
10.0 CAP hit - 0.500 retention = 9.500 CAP Hit
So it must be example 2... but...
Alex on Aneheim:
6 million CAP hit and 7 million per year left in salary.
If they were to retain 6.5 million per year, that woul make his CAP hit NEGATIVE 0.500... that cant be right either.
How does one calculate this stuff?!! lol